"Brit-Am Now"-1026
Contents: 1. OrjanSvensson:
Swedish Words from Hebrew
2. Cam Rea: Hope to hear both
YairDavidiy
and Steven Collins
3. Numerous Questions Answered in Brit-Am Article
1. OrjanSvensson:
Swedish Words from Hebrew From: Orjan Svensson <o_svensson@yahoo.com>
Re: Brit Am Now 1023 -
#2. Stephen J Spykerman: English Related to Hebrew
See comments below.
> A "penknife" in Hebrew is called taar meaning any
> kind of sharp cutting instrument. This is the
> most likely origin of the English word for "tear".
I guess that the Swedish word "tara", meaning to
consume is related.
> The English word "dumb" is derived from the Hebrew
> dom meaning to be silent.
"Dum" earlier meant mute or silent in Swedish
similarly to the Hebrew dom, but in modern Swedish it
means stupid or mean.
2. Cam Rea: Hope to hear both YairDavidiy
and Steven Collins
From: Cam Rea <tragicpoet77@yahoo.com>
Subject: Radio show
Steven Collins did a great job. He was very clear and to the point.
Hope to one day hear both you "Mr. Davidiy", and Steven Collins on the show
together one day.
Cam Rea
3. Numerous Questions Answered in
Brit-Am Article
Our recent article,
"Answer to an Anti-Identity Polemic"
http://www.britam.org/Polemic.html answers numerous ??? that frequently arise in Brit-Am centered discussions.
The article is built around lengthy extracts from a tract attacking Brit-Am type
beliefs
followed by Brit-Am answers.
Some find the article too long and the extracts too copious for comfortable
reading.
A suggested solution is to skip over the extracts of attack and only read the
Brit-Am answers
which are provided in a different color and without the same margin indentation.
This allows for a quick skip from one Brit-Am
answer to the other.
Questions dealt with in the article include:
Did the idea of the Lost Israelites being in the west begin with Richard
Brothers and British Israel?
Is British Israel a subversive anti-American Movement?
Are Brit-Am type beliefs the domain of nutcase fringe elements?
Does a Manasseh-identification of the USA deny the historical superiority of
North America?
Cannot different "proofs" such as becoming "great" adduced by Brit-Am and
company be applied to numerous other candidates?
Are not the British a misture of peoples including "Germanic" Angles and Saxons?
Is not the Royal house of Britain a German family who only recently came from
Germany?
How could such a family possibly be descended from King David?
If the exact percentage of Israelite origin is not know what point do the claims
of Israelite ancestry have?
What kind of identification is it if it only applies to a portion of the people?
How can they be the Lost Tribes if there are Jews amongst them?
How can the Lost Tribes be considered "Lost" when we know that there were people
from "Ephraim and Manasseh" who returned with Ezra and Nehemiah?
Did not Ezekiel 1:5 address the "House of Israel" where it is obvious that he
was speaking to the Jews in Babylon?
Cyrus the Persian Emperor issued a decree (Ezra 1:1-3) telling all those who
belonged to the Chosen People to return to their land. Would this not have
included the Ten Tribes as well as "Judah"?
Ezra offered up sacrifices for "all Israel" (Ezra 6 :16-17). Does this not mean
that members of all the Israelite Tribes were present?
Does not Jeremiah (34:9) use the terms "Hebrew" and "Jew" interchangeably?
Does Ezekiel 37 not refer to the Ten Tribes and Judah re-uniting in ancient
times?
Were not the promises of greatness and a ruling monarch to be understood in a
spiritual allegorical sense?
What kind of racial resemblance is there?
Are not the similarity of names (Dan, Denmark, etc) explainable as pure
coincidence and given to more acceptable explanation?
What about other Chrisitian peoples who have shown themselves more attached to
Scripture than the Anglo-Saxons?
Are they also Israelites because of this? Even when they became rabid
anti-Semites?
Did not King Hezekiah of Judah address himself (2 Chronicles ch. 30) to "Ephraim
and Manasseh", "Assher and Manasseh and Zebulun", "a multitude of people, even
many of Ephraim, and Manasseh, and Issachar, and Zebulun"? If the Ten Tribes
were all in exile who was King Ezekiel speaking to?
Does not the "appointed place" (2-Samuel 7:10-14) that it is claimed refers to
Britain and/or America actually mean the Land of Israel?
Should not "gates of his enemies"(Genesis 22) actually be read in the singular
and does it not mean "power" rather than "passages of traffic"?
Does the Hebrew translated as "isles" really mean islands? and if it does, why
not New Guinea, Japan, or any other body surrounded by water?
Does Scripture REALLY associate the "islands" with the Lost Tribes?
Why is it claimed that the Lost Ten Tribes are associated with Tarshish which is
a non-Israelite nation?
Is not this whole idea racialist and Nazi-like?
Does it not serve the interest of advocates of British domination over the USA
and the rest of the world?
